(personal thinking)
In a Hilbert space like $\mathbb C^5$ we have the position operator
$$ \hat{X} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 3 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 4 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 5 \\ \end{bmatrix} $$and we can consider the matrix which is something like the translation operator:
$$ T=\left(\begin{array}{lllll} 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \end{array}\right) $$Given a vector $v=(a,b,c,d,e)$, the result of the operator is "translate" the coordinates:
$$ Tv=(e,a,b,c,d). $$We can consider the matrix $P$ such that the matrix exponential $e^P=T$, son $P$ can be seen like the generator of translations. I think that $P$ is something like the momentum operator in this setup. This operator has a special basis of eigenvectors, representing the pure momentum states.
Given a vector $v$ in the initial basis, the coordinates in this new basis is a kind of Laplace transform.
In the continuous case everything is analogous: the vectors are functions $f$ and the Hilbert space is a space of functions. The translation operator is
$$ T: f(x) \mapsto f(x-1) $$According to Taylor's theorem,
$$ T(f)(x)=e^{-\partial_x} (f) $$son we have the momentum operator $P=e^{-\partial_x}$. The eigenvectos of this operator are
$$ e^{sx}, s\in \mathbb C $$So Laplace transform is nothing but a change of basis. But what I don't understand yet why we choose only some eigenvectors in Quantum Mechanics, i.e., only
$$ e^{i\omega x}, \omega \in \mathbb R $$i.e., why we take Fourier transform.
Why Only Certain Eigenvectors?:
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Author of the notes: Antonio J. Pan-Collantes
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